EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...

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Question1: Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?

Question2: Which of the following is a correct reason to apply test automation?

Question3: Which of the following statements about independent testing is WRONG?

Question4: Why it is essential that defects found in a review be reported objectively?

Question5: The testers in company A were part of the development team. Due to an organizational change they moved to be part of the support team.
What are the advantages and the disadvantages of this change?

Question6: Which sequence of state transition stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting me life-cycle of a defect?

Question7: Which of the following BEST matches the attributes with a level of testing?
I Stubs and drivers are often used
II The lest environment should correspond to the production environment III Finding defects is not the main focus IV Testing can be based on use cases V Testing is normally performed by testers VI Testing for functional and non-functional characteristics

Question8: Who of the following has the best knowledge to decide what tests in a test project should be automated?

Question9: A software module to be used in a mission critical application incorporates an algorithm for secure transmission of dat a.
Which review type is most appropriate to ensure high quality and technical correctness of the algorithm?

Question10: Why is it important to select a test technique?

Question11: The following open incident report provided:
Date: 01.01.01
Description: When pressing the stop button the application status remain in "Attention" instead of "Ready'.
Severity: High
Life Cycle: Integration
Which of the following details are missing in the giving incident report?
I, Identification or configuration of the application
II, The name of the developer
III, Recommendation of the developer
IV The actions and/or conditions that came before the pressing of the button

Question12: As the last stage of a test cycle of an embedded device, you are performing exploratory testing. You observed that some character. (A, X and Z) sent via a serial port to the device do not get registered on the device whereas they should be. You suspect that this could be due to a wrong configuration of the "bit parity" parameter.
Which of the following items of an incident report would you be UNABLE to write down based on this information?

Question13: Which of the following is a typical product risk?

Question14: 4 equivalence classes are given for integer values:
0 < x <100
100<= x <= 200
200 < x < 500
x >= 500
Which of the following options represent correct set of data for valid equivalence class partitions?

Question15: The following requirement is given "Set X to be the sum of Y and Z".
All the following four implementations have bugs.
Which one of the following bugs can be caught by Static Analysis?

Question16: The following chart represents metrics related to testing of a project that was competed. Indicate what is represented by tie lines A, B and the axes X.Y

Question17: Which of the following does MOT describe a reason why testing is necessary?

Question18: A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.
Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

Question19: The following part of a business process flow is specified; REPEAT (book a bill) UNTIL (User presses Cancel). How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% branch coverage of the process flow?

Question20: An Incident Management tool implements the following defect states; Open, Assigned, Solved, Closed Consider the following defect report:
Id T000561
Test Object "Warehouse Management' application
Tester name; John Bishop
Date: 10th. April 2010
Test Case MRT558I
Status OPEN
Severity Serious
Priority
Problem- After inputting the Total Quantity item = 450 in the SV034 screen, the system shows an unexpected Error message=47 Correction:
Developer name:
Closing date:
Which of the following is a valid criticism of this report?

Question21: Which of the following statements contradicts the general principles of testing?

Question22: Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

Question23: Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?

Question24: Which of the following exemplifies how a software bug can cause harm to a company?

Question25: Which of the following sentences describe a product risk?

Question26: A test manager defined the following test levels in her test plan; Component, System and Acceptance.
Which Software Development lifecycle is the Test Manager most likely following?

Question27: Which of the following statements regarding inspection is NOT true?

Question28: A program got 100% decision coverage in a test. Which of the following statements is then guaranteed to be true?

Question29: For withdrawing money tram an Automated Teller Machine (ATM), the following conditions are required:
- The bank card is valid
- The PIN code is correct
- Money is available in the user's account
The following are some possible interactions between the user and the ATM:
- The entered card is invalid The card is rejected
- The PIN code is wrong The ATM asks for another PIN code
- The requested amount is more than available in the user's account: The ATM asks for another amount
- The requested amount is available in the user's account The ATM dispenses the money Which test design technique should be used to cover all possible combinations of the input conditions?

Question30: Which of the following statements about test reports are TRUE?
I Test reports shall be approved by the test team.
II Test reports shall give stakeholders information as basis for decisions.
Ill Test reports shall summarize what happened through a period of testing.
IV Test reports shall be approved by the development team, the test team and the customer V Test reports shall include information about remaining risks.

Question31: Consider the following statements about risk-based testing.
I) Risk-based testing has the objective to reduce the level of protect risks.
II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible.
III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk
IV) Risks have to be reassessed on a regular basis.
V) The project stakeholders can give useful input to determine the risks

Question32: Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?

Question33: Consider the following testing levels:
1) Component Testing
2) Integration Testing
3) System Testing
4) Acceptance Testing
Which of the following statements is true?

Question34: Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be describing component testing?

Question35: A system has valid input numbers ranging between 1000 and 99999 (both inclusive). Which of the following inputs are a result of designing tests for all valid equivalence classes and their boundaries?

Question36: A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool. Which of the following is the best option?

Question37: Which of the following statements is not correct?

Question38: Your manager asked you when testing will be complete. In order to answer this question, you'll most likely use:

Question39: Which of the following statements about static analysis are FALSE?
I, Static analysis can be used Instead of dynamic testing.
II, Stalk: analysis can uncover defects like security vulnerabilities.
III, Static analysis can be used to check conformance to specifications and standards.
IV Static analysis typically detects failures prior to component testing.

Question40: Which type of software development product can undergo static testing?

Question41: A mid-size software product development company has analyzed data related to defects detected in its product and found out that detects fixed in earlier builds are getting re-opened after a few months.
The company management now seeks your advice in order to reverse this trend and prevent re-opening of defects fixed earlier.
What would be your FIRST recommendation to the company?

Question42: The following sentences refer to the 'Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829).
Which sentence is correct?

Question43: A test manager decided to skip static testing since he believes bugs can be found easily by doing dynamic testing. Was this decision right or wrong?

Question44: Which of the following activities does NOT belong to a typical technical review?

Question45: For a mandatory input field "ZIP code" the following rules are given:
1 - The valid ZIP code format is 5 numeric digits.
2 - The code has to exist in the post office's official ZIP code list
Using equivalence classes partitioning, how many test cases are required to test this field?

Question46: Why should you choose a test technique?

Question47: What type of testing measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests?

Question48: Which of the following statements describes regression testing?
I, Retesting of a fixed defect
II, Testing of an already tested program
III, Testing of new functionality in a program
IV, Regression testing applies only to functional testing
V Tests that do not nave to be repeatable, because They are only used once

Question49: Which or the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: An integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15.

Question50: Which of the following should be included in a test status report?
I Estimation details
II Total number of open and closed defects
III Actual effort spent
IV Defect reports
V Number of executed, failed, blocked tests

Question51: Which of the following is the main benefit of a configuration management of testware?

Question52: Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?
I Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.
II. The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.
III. Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.
IV Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.

Question53: The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:
1. Component (unit) testing
2. Integration testing
3. System testing
4. Acceptance testing
An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?

Question54: Which of the following statements about reviews are TRUE?
I In walkthroughs the review meeting is typically led by the author.
II Inspection is characterized by an open-ended review meeting
III Preparation before the review meeting is part of informal reviews
IV Management rarely participates in technical review meetings

Question55: Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?

Question56: Which of the following tools is most likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code?

Question57: The ISTOB glossary defines Quality Assurance as: "Pail or quality management focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled. Which of the following Is not one of the Quality Assurance activity?

Question58: When should component integration tests be carried out?